1. What does
execution of document signify? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
It must be properly executed as per the specimen signatures recorded with the bank.
It should be properly stamped.
It should be registered, if required.
All the above.
It must be properly executed as per the specimen signatures recorded with the bank.
It should be properly stamped.
It should be registered, if required.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
2. Documentation
is necessary because of : Marks: 2+ 0.5-
It helps to identify/specify the borrower.
It helps to identify security.
It works as a written evidence.
All the above.
It helps to identify/specify the borrower.
It helps to identify security.
It works as a written evidence.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
3. Which of the
following is not relevant to documentation?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
It is an evidence of creating a change over the security.
It can recognize forget transactions.
It provides a right to the Bank of file a summary suit.
It defines rights and obligations of the parties thereto.
It is an evidence of creating a change over the security.
It can recognize forget transactions.
It provides a right to the Bank of file a summary suit.
It defines rights and obligations of the parties thereto.
The
Correct Answer is : It can
recognize forget transactions.
4. The requirement
of execution of documents depends on: Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Nature of credit facility.
Nature of security of loan.
Constitution of business.
All the above.
Nature of credit facility.
Nature of security of loan.
Constitution of business.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
5. The security
documents can be by way of : Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Personal Security.
Primary Security.
Collateral Security.
Any or all the above.
Personal Security.
Primary Security.
Collateral Security.
Any or all the above.
The
Correct Answer is : Any or all
the above.
6. Which of the
following one stamps where documents are required to be stamped?
Adhesive
Revenue Stamp.
Special Adhesive/Embossed stamp.
Bill of Exchange Stamps.
All the aboe.
Special Adhesive/Embossed stamp.
Bill of Exchange Stamps.
All the aboe.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
aboe.
7. The Adhesive
Revenue Stamps are affected on : Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Demand Promissory Notes.
Acknowledgements.
Balance Confirmation, Receipts.
All the above.
Demand Promissory Notes.
Acknowledgements.
Balance Confirmation, Receipts.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
8. Special
Adhesive/Embossed Stamps are used in : Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Hypothecation Agreement.
Pledge Agreement
Letter of Guarantee.
All the above.
Hypothecation Agreement.
Pledge Agreement
Letter of Guarantee.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
9. In which of the
following documents the limitation period is 3 years?
Marks: 2+
Demand
Pronote from the date of DP note.
Overdrafts - from the date of advances.
Term Loan - from the date of default in payment of each instalment.
All the above.
Overdrafts - from the date of advances.
Term Loan - from the date of default in payment of each instalment.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
10. Which of the
following statements, is not correct regarding law of limitation in case of
mortgage loan?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
12 years from the date the money is due if money is to be recovered by sale of mortgaged property.
3 years from the date the money is due for payment if borrower is made personally liable.
30 years when the right to redeem or recover possession of immovable property.
All the above.
12 years from the date the money is due if money is to be recovered by sale of mortgaged property.
3 years from the date the money is due for payment if borrower is made personally liable.
30 years when the right to redeem or recover possession of immovable property.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
11. Which of the
following statements, is correct? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
There is no period of limitation for sale of pledged goods.
In case of Hypothecation the limitation period is 3 years from the date of loan.
Bill of exchange has 3 years limitation period from the due date.
All the above.
There is no period of limitation for sale of pledged goods.
In case of Hypothecation the limitation period is 3 years from the date of loan.
Bill of exchange has 3 years limitation period from the due date.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
12. Extension of
limitation period can be way of Marks: 2+ 0.5-
obtaining fresh set of documents.
Acknowledgement of debt
Part payment
All the above.
obtaining fresh set of documents.
Acknowledgement of debt
Part payment
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
13. the process of
providing documents to police or CBI is :
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
They may seize a document set for investigation in case of fraud.
They may be given certified Xerox copy.
If they insist for original Xerox copy should be retained with the bank.
All the above.
They may seize a document set for investigation in case of fraud.
They may be given certified Xerox copy.
If they insist for original Xerox copy should be retained with the bank.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
14. Which of the
following are the important cash Books being maintained by the Bank?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Cash Received the Payment Book.
Sectional Cash Book.
Cash Balance Book.
All the above.
Cash Received the Payment Book.
Sectional Cash Book.
Cash Balance Book.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
15. Which of the
following can be proved in the court of Law according to Bankers Books Evidence
Act?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Existence of a document.
Condition of a document.
Contents of a document
All the above.
Existence of a document.
Condition of a document.
Contents of a document
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
16. Which of the
following statements, is correct regarding the provisions of Bankers Book
Evidence act?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Entries in Books of Accounts regularly kept in the course of Business are relevant in the matter of court inquiry.
However, above statements shall not be alone be sufficient evidence to cheque any person with liability.
The entries in the books can be used as corroborative evidence,
All the above.
Entries in Books of Accounts regularly kept in the course of Business are relevant in the matter of court inquiry.
However, above statements shall not be alone be sufficient evidence to cheque any person with liability.
The entries in the books can be used as corroborative evidence,
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
17. In which year
the Bankers Books Evidence Act was enacted?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
1891
1906
1934
1947.
1891
1906
1934
1947.
The
Correct Answer is : 1891
18. Which of the
following statements, is correct regarding the Bankers Books Evidence act?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
It is a special Act which provides certain privileges to Banks.
The Act deals in connection with mode of proving of entries in their Books.
The act also have provision regarding production of Books in the court of Law.
All the above.
It is a special Act which provides certain privileges to Banks.
The Act deals in connection with mode of proving of entries in their Books.
The act also have provision regarding production of Books in the court of Law.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : The Act
deals in connection with mode of proving of entries in their Books.
19. Which of the
following are the essential features of Law of Evidence?
Marks: 2+
The
conditions and contents of a document can be proved before a court only by
producing original document.
So long original documents rae available, a copy can not be produced.
However there are certain exceptions to the Law.
All the above.
So long original documents rae available, a copy can not be produced.
However there are certain exceptions to the Law.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
20. What are the
exceptions of Evidence Act? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
a certified copy of the original document can be produced in the court of Law if it is permitted by any law.
The Bankers Books Evidence act. Is also an exception to the Evidence Act.
Both (a) and (b).
None of the above.
a certified copy of the original document can be produced in the court of Law if it is permitted by any law.
The Bankers Books Evidence act. Is also an exception to the Evidence Act.
Both (a) and (b).
None of the above.
The
Correct Answer is : Both (a)
and (b).
21. Which of the
following is included in the Bankers Book? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Ledger and Day Books.
Cash Books and Account Books.
All other Books used in the ordinary business of a Bank.
All the above.
Ledger and Day Books.
Cash Books and Account Books.
All other Books used in the ordinary business of a Bank.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
22. What is a
certified copy?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
A copy of any entry in the Books of a Bank alongwith a certificate that copy is a True Copy.
That such entry is contained in one of the Books of the Bank.
And such Books are still under the custody of the Bank.
A copy which includes all the above information.
A copy of any entry in the Books of a Bank alongwith a certificate that copy is a True Copy.
That such entry is contained in one of the Books of the Bank.
And such Books are still under the custody of the Bank.
A copy which includes all the above information.
The
Correct Answer is : A copy
which includes all the above information.
23. Which of the
following statements, is not correct regarding Bankers Books Evidence Act?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
The certificate issued by Bank should have signatures of the authorized person and it should be dated.
It should be supported by original document.
The certified copy will be original document.
The Bank will ensure the accuracy of the copy.
The certificate issued by Bank should have signatures of the authorized person and it should be dated.
It should be supported by original document.
The certified copy will be original document.
The Bank will ensure the accuracy of the copy.
The
Correct Answer is : It should
be supported by original document.
24. Which of the
following statements, is correct regarding Bankers Books Evidence Act?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
No officer of a Bank can be compelled to produce any Bankers Books unless it is specially ordered by the court.
The above provision (a) applies only when the Bank is not a party to the case.
An investigating Police officer can compel a Bank officer to produce the Book without court order.
All the above.
No officer of a Bank can be compelled to produce any Bankers Books unless it is specially ordered by the court.
The above provision (a) applies only when the Bank is not a party to the case.
An investigating Police officer can compel a Bank officer to produce the Book without court order.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
25. Legal
proceeding under Bankers Books Evidence Act, signifies:
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
any proceeding or inquiry in which evidence is given
an arbitration]
any investigation under the code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
All the above.
any proceeding or inquiry in which evidence is given
an arbitration]
any investigation under the code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
26. What are the
powers of the court in case of legal proceedings under the Bankers Books
Evidence act?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
permit the affected party to inspect the Books and take copies.
Order the Bank to prepare the produce within specified time the certified copies/
Order the Bank to prepare certificates as desired under the Law.
All the above.
permit the affected party to inspect the Books and take copies.
Order the Bank to prepare the produce within specified time the certified copies/
Order the Bank to prepare certificates as desired under the Law.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
27. In how many
days a Bank is required to comply with court orders under Bankers Books
evidence act?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
3 days excluding Bank holidays.
7 days excluding Bank holidays.
10 days excluding Bank holidays.
15 days excluding Bank holidays.
3 days excluding Bank holidays.
7 days excluding Bank holidays.
10 days excluding Bank holidays.
15 days excluding Bank holidays.
The
Correct Answer is : 3 days
excluding Bank holidays.
28. According to
section 3 of Evidence Act, the Document can be defined:
Marks: 2+
Any
matter expressed or described upon any substance by means of letter, figure or
marks.
Or by any other means.
It intends to be used for prupose of recording that matter.
All the above.
Or by any other means.
It intends to be used for prupose of recording that matter.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
29. Evidence
means:
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
All statements presented before a court by way of witnesses.
It is in relation to a matter of fact under inquiry.
Such statements are called oral evidence.
All the above
All statements presented before a court by way of witnesses.
It is in relation to a matter of fact under inquiry.
Such statements are called oral evidence.
All the above
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above
30. Which of the
following statements, is correct? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
All documents produced for inspection of court are called documentary evidence.
Primary Document mean original document itself.
Certified copies are secondary evidences.
All the above.
All documents produced for inspection of court are called documentary evidence.
Primary Document mean original document itself.
Certified copies are secondary evidences.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
31. Which was the
first committee recommended for establishment of special Recovery tribunals for
Books and Financial Institution? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Tiwari committee.
Ojha Committee.
Narasimham Committee.
Rangrajan Committee.
Tiwari committee.
Ojha Committee.
Narasimham Committee.
Rangrajan Committee.
The
Correct Answer is : Tiwari
committee.
32. In which year
the tiwari Committee recommended for establishment of Special tribunals for
Banks dues recovery?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
1981
1987
1991
1995.
1981
1987
1991
1995.
The
Correct Answer is : 1981
33. Which of the
following committees also recommended the set up of Debit Recovery Tribunals?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Committee on Financial Sector Reforms.
Committee on Custom Service.
Committee on RRBs.
None of the above.
Committee on Financial Sector Reforms.
Committee on Custom Service.
Committee on RRBs.
None of the above.
The
Correct Answer is : Committee
on Financial Sector Reforms.
34. In which year
the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act. Was enacted?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
1991
1993
1994
1995.
1991
1993
1994
1995.
The
Correct Answer is : 1993
35. In which of
the following states the Recovery of Debts due Act is under implementation?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Selected States of the Country.
All the state of Country.
All over the country except Jammu & Kashmir.
No such restriction.
Selected States of the Country.
All the state of Country.
All over the country except Jammu & Kashmir.
No such restriction.
The
Correct Answer is : All over
the country except Jammu & Kashmir.
36. Which of the
following cases to the Recovery of Debts due Act, is applicable?
Where
amount involved is less than Rs. 10 lac.
Where amount involved is Rs. 10 lac or above.
Whre amount involved is upto Rs. 11 lac.
No such restriction.
Where amount involved is Rs. 10 lac or above.
Whre amount involved is upto Rs. 11 lac.
No such restriction.
The
Correct Answer is : Where
amount involved is Rs. 10 lac or above.
37. The central
government has powers to authorize Tribunals to hear cases where amount
involved is less than Rs. 10 lac but more than:
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Rs. 1 lac.
Rs. 2 lac
Rs. 5 lac.
Rs. 7 lac.
Rs. 1 lac.
Rs. 2 lac
Rs. 5 lac.
Rs. 7 lac.
The
Correct Answer is : Rs. 1 lac.
38. What central
government has powers to authorize Tribunals to hear cases where amount
involved is less than rs. 10 lac but more than ;
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
To transfer all the cases of Bank recovery from civil court to the tribunals.
To set up an exclusive agency for Bank recovery.
To set up Special Tribunal which can provide speedy court remedies.
All the above.
To transfer all the cases of Bank recovery from civil court to the tribunals.
To set up an exclusive agency for Bank recovery.
To set up Special Tribunal which can provide speedy court remedies.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : To set up
Special Tribunal which can provide speedy court remedies.
39. What are the
various modes available to the Recovery officer for proceeding to recover the
amount of debt?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Attachment or sale of movable or immovable property.
Arrest the defendant or detention in jail.
Appointing a Receiver for the management of the movable or immovable
All the above.
Attachment or sale of movable or immovable property.
Arrest the defendant or detention in jail.
Appointing a Receiver for the management of the movable or immovable
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
40. How may Debt
Recover tribunals have been set up in India?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
27.
28
29
50
27.
28
29
50
The
Correct Answer is : 29
41. What is the
jurisdiction area of a Debt Recovery Tribunal?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Each state.
One or more states/Union Territories
Throughout the country.
No such criteria.
Each state.
One or more states/Union Territories
Throughout the country.
No such criteria.
The
Correct Answer is : One or more
states/Union Territories
42. In which
places an appeal against the orders of Debts Recovery office can be field?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Appellate Tribunal.
High Court.
District Court.
Appeal can not be filed.
Appellate Tribunal.
High Court.
District Court.
Appeal can not be filed.
The
Correct Answer is : Appellate
Tribunal.
43. Where is the
Appellate Tribunals is located? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Thrivanthpuram.
Mumbai
East State Head Quarter.
None of these.
Thrivanthpuram.
Mumbai
East State Head Quarter.
None of these.
The
Correct Answer is : Mumbai
44. What is the
fee payable upto a loan amount of Rs. 10 lac.
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Rs. 10,000
Rs. 12,000
Rs. 1,50,000.
Rs. 20,000.
Rs. 10,000
Rs. 12,000
Rs. 1,50,000.
Rs. 20,000.
The
Correct Answer is : Rs. 12,000
45. What is the
fee payable for the Debt amount above Rs. 10 lac?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Rs. 1000 for every Rs. 1 lac and part thereof.
Rs. 1200 for every Rs. 1 lac and part thereof.
Rs. 1500 for every Rs. 1 lac and part thereof.
Rs. 2000 for every Rs. 1 lac and part thereof.
Rs. 1000 for every Rs. 1 lac and part thereof.
Rs. 1200 for every Rs. 1 lac and part thereof.
Rs. 1500 for every Rs. 1 lac and part thereof.
Rs. 2000 for every Rs. 1 lac and part thereof.
The
Correct Answer is : Rs. 1000
for every Rs. 1 lac and part thereof.
46. What is the
maximum amount of fee payable for filing a Recovery case with the Debt Recovery
Tribunal?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Rs. 1 lac.
Rs. 1,20,000
Rs. 1,50,000
12% of the Debt amount.
Rs. 1 lac.
Rs. 1,20,000
Rs. 1,50,000
12% of the Debt amount.
The
Correct Answer is : Rs.
1,50,000
47. How much is
the fee payable if a suit is transferred to Debts Recovery Tribunal from a
court?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Rs. 1,00,000.
Rs. 1,50,000.
80% of the debt amount.
No such fee is payable.
Rs. 1,00,000.
Rs. 1,50,000.
80% of the debt amount.
No such fee is payable.
The
Correct Answer is : No such fee
is payable.
48. In how many
days the DRT should summons to the defendant to show cause?
Within
7 days.
Within 10 days.
Within 30 days.
Within 60 days.
Within 10 days.
Within 30 days.
Within 60 days.
The
Correct Answer is : Within 30
days.
49. What is the
time limit for DRT to complete the process?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Within 6 months.
Within 9 months.
Within 12 months.
No such limit.
Within 6 months.
Within 9 months.
Within 12 months.
No such limit.
The
Correct Answer is : Within 6
months.
50. Who issues
Certificate of Recovery for recovery of debts?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Recovery Officer.
Presiding Officer.
Bank Manager.
Appellate Authority.
Recovery Officer.
Presiding Officer.
Bank Manager.
Appellate Authority.
The
Correct Answer is : Presiding
Officer.
51. Who is mainly
responsible for recovery of debt in the DRT?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Recovery Officer.
Presiding Officer.
Income tax Officer.
Suprintendent of Police.
Recovery Officer.
Presiding Officer.
Income tax Officer.
Suprintendent of Police.
The
Correct Answer is : Recovery
Officer.
52. What is the
time limit to file a Memorandum of Appeal with Debt Recovery Appellate
Tribunal?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
With in 15 days from the date of Receipt of DRT order.
With in 30 days from the date of Receipt of DRT order.
With in 45 days from the date of Receipt of DRT order.
With in 60 days from the date of Receipt of DRT order.
With in 15 days from the date of Receipt of DRT order.
With in 30 days from the date of Receipt of DRT order.
With in 45 days from the date of Receipt of DRT order.
With in 60 days from the date of Receipt of DRT order.
The
Correct Answer is : With in 45
days from the date of Receipt of DRT order.
53. Which of the
following statements, is correct regarding filing an appeal with debt Recovery
Appellate Authority?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
An appeal can be made with Appellate Authority against the order of DRT.
Appeal can be filed with requisite fee.
The debtor has to deposit a specified amount of the debt with the Appellate
All the above.
An appeal can be made with Appellate Authority against the order of DRT.
Appeal can be filed with requisite fee.
The debtor has to deposit a specified amount of the debt with the Appellate
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
54. How much
amount the Debtor has to deposit with the Appellate Authority while filing an
appeal against the DRT orders? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
10% of Debt as mentioned in order of DRT.
25% of Debt as mentioned in order of DRT.
50% of Debt as mentioned in order of DRT.
75% of Debt as mentioned in order of dRT.
10% of Debt as mentioned in order of DRT.
25% of Debt as mentioned in order of DRT.
50% of Debt as mentioned in order of DRT.
75% of Debt as mentioned in order of dRT.
The
Correct Answer is : 75% of Debt
as mentioned in order of dRT.
55. What is the
time limit for disposing an appeal by Appellate Authority ?
Within
2 months.
Within 3 months.
Within 6 months.
No such limit.
Within 3 months.
Within 6 months.
No such limit.
The
Correct Answer is : Within 6
months.
56. How many Debt
Recovery Appellate Tribunals have been set up?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
2
5
7
10
2
5
7
10
The
Correct Answer is : 5
57. Where an
appeal against the order of Appellate Tribunal can be made?
No
where.
High Court.
Supreme Court.
Concerned District Court.
High Court.
Supreme Court.
Concerned District Court.
The
Correct Answer is : High Court.
58. Which of the
following reasons prompted for set up of Debt Recovery Tribunal?
Under
delay in setting the claims by courts.
Delay in extension the decree.
Non-availability of Assets with the borrower due to inordinate delay in courts.
All the aboe.
Delay in extension the decree.
Non-availability of Assets with the borrower due to inordinate delay in courts.
All the aboe.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
aboe.
59. Which of the
following dates the DRT Act, 1993 was implemented?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
24.06.1963
27.08.1993
30.09.1993
30.09.1993
24.06.1963
27.08.1993
30.09.1993
30.09.1993
The
Correct Answer is : 27.08.1993
60. Which of the
following High Courts rejected implementation of DRT act, 1993 in its State in
1995?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Delhi High Court.
Allahabad High Court.
Japan High Court.
Mumbai High Court.
Delhi High Court.
Allahabad High Court.
Japan High Court.
Mumbai High Court.
The
Correct Answer is : Delhi High
Court.
61. The Presiding
officer of DRT is appointed by : Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Reserve Bank of India.
Supreme Court.
Central Government
High Court.
Reserve Bank of India.
Supreme Court.
Central Government
High Court.
The
Correct Answer is : Central
Government
62. What is the
tenure of Presiding officer? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
1 year.
3 years.
5 years.
No such limit.
1 year.
3 years.
5 years.
No such limit.
The
Correct Answer is : 3 years.
63. Which of the
following organization are not eligible to avail the benefits of DRT Act, 1993.
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Commercial Banks.
Financial Institutions.
Non-Banking Financial Institutions.
All these.
Commercial Banks.
Financial Institutions.
Non-Banking Financial Institutions.
All these.
The
Correct Answer is : Non-Banking
Financial Institutions.
64. Which of the
following debts is not considered for Recovery by Debt Recovery Tribunal?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Debts due to Staff of the Bank.
Debts due to Small Industries.
Debts due to Professional and self-employed persons.
Any other debts of commercial nature.
Debts due to Staff of the Bank.
Debts due to Small Industries.
Debts due to Professional and self-employed persons.
Any other debts of commercial nature.
The
Correct Answer is : Debts due
to Staff of the Bank.
65. Which of the
following modes can be used for filing a case with DRT?
Marks: 2+
Personally
by Representative of a Bank or the Bank Advocate.
Application can be sent through Registered Post.
(a) or (b).
None of the above.
Application can be sent through Registered Post.
(a) or (b).
None of the above.
The
Correct Answer is : (a) or (b).
66. In which of
the following Tribunals, a case for recovery under DRT Act, can be filled?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Any of the Tribunals in India.
Only in the Tribunal in whose jurisdiction the Bank of Financial Onstitution is working.
Only in the Tribunal in whose jurisdiction the Bank of Financial Onstitution is working.
Any of the above.
Any of the Tribunals in India.
Only in the Tribunal in whose jurisdiction the Bank of Financial Onstitution is working.
Only in the Tribunal in whose jurisdiction the Bank of Financial Onstitution is working.
Any of the above.
The
Correct Answer is : Only in the
Tribunal in whose jurisdiction the Bank of Financial Onstitution is working.
67. Which of the
following are the enclosures to the enclosed with the recovery application to
the filed with DRT?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Prescribed Fee.
Paper Book.
Particulars of Assets financed through loans.
All the above.
Prescribed Fee.
Paper Book.
Particulars of Assets financed through loans.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
68. What are the
enclosures to Paper Book to be submitted with recovery application to DRT?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Statement of loan account.
Purpose and circumstances under which loan was disbursed.
Reasons for default.
All the above.
Statement of loan account.
Purpose and circumstances under which loan was disbursed.
Reasons for default.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
69. Which of the
following is not an enclosure to the paper Book which is enclosed to the
application with DRT?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
All the documents based on which the claim is formed.
Details of payment of Fee.
Application of the Borrower.
Affidavit of the Advocate if the case is filed through the Advocate.,
All the documents based on which the claim is formed.
Details of payment of Fee.
Application of the Borrower.
Affidavit of the Advocate if the case is filed through the Advocate.,
The
Correct Answer is : Application
of the Borrower.
70. Which of the
following is correct regarding filing a recovery case with DRT?
The
application for recovery should be filed in 4 copies.
The loan documents should not be time barred at the time of filing a case.
The Recovery officer has powers like an Income Tax officer.
All the above.
The loan documents should not be time barred at the time of filing a case.
The Recovery officer has powers like an Income Tax officer.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
71. Which of the
following can be part of interim order of DRT?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Injuention.
Stay
Attachment.
Any of the above.
Injuention.
Stay
Attachment.
Any of the above.
The
Correct Answer is : Any of the
above.
72. The interim
order of DRT can debar the Borrower from:
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
transferring any property or Assets belonging to him.
Alienating any property or Assets belonging to him.
Disposing of any property or Assets belonging to him.
Any or all of the above.
transferring any property or Assets belonging to him.
Alienating any property or Assets belonging to him.
Disposing of any property or Assets belonging to him.
Any or all of the above.
The
Correct Answer is : Any or all
of the above.
73. Which of the
following is not the power of DRT? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Presenting a Borrower to submit an appeal against the orders of DRT.
Management, protection and Improvement of property attached.
Collection of Rent and Profits on the attached property.
Distribution of the realization proceeds among secured creditors.
Presenting a Borrower to submit an appeal against the orders of DRT.
Management, protection and Improvement of property attached.
Collection of Rent and Profits on the attached property.
Distribution of the realization proceeds among secured creditors.
The
Correct Answer is : Presenting
a Borrower to submit an appeal against the orders of DRT.
74. What is Lok
Adalat?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
It is an easy process of Settlement of Bank dues.
Small loans upto a specified amount can be settled through Lok Adalat.
It is a process of mutual settlement.
All the above.
It is an easy process of Settlement of Bank dues.
Small loans upto a specified amount can be settled through Lok Adalat.
It is a process of mutual settlement.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
75. Which of the following
are the features of Lok Adalat? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Lok Adalat meets on a specified day once a month.
The Bank and Borrower can have mutual settlement of their own or through
The competent officer of a Bank can present himself in the process.
All the above.
Lok Adalat meets on a specified day once a month.
The Bank and Borrower can have mutual settlement of their own or through
The competent officer of a Bank can present himself in the process.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
76. What are the
advantages of Lok Adalat? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Minimum Fee.
Easy and fast Process.
Facility of write offs.
All these.
Minimum Fee.
Easy and fast Process.
Facility of write offs.
All these.
The
Correct Answer is : All these.
77. A Bank officer
of the following rank can refer the cases to Lok Adalat:
Marks: 2+
Scale
II
Scale III
Scale IV
Scale v.
Scale III
Scale IV
Scale v.
The
Correct Answer is : Scale IV
78. The Scale III
officers can participate in Lok Adalat proceedings and may arrive at the
compromise where write off amount does not exceed:
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Rs. 2,500
Rs. 5,000
Rs. 10,000
Rs. 12.500.
Rs. 2,500
Rs. 5,000
Rs. 10,000
Rs. 12.500.
The
Correct Answer is : Rs. 2,500
79. The decision
of the Scale III Bank official in write off the liability will have to be
approved by:
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Chairman
General Manager
Zonal Manager
No ratification is required.
Chairman
General Manager
Zonal Manager
No ratification is required.
The
Correct Answer is : Zonal
Manager
80. Which of the
following Committee recommended a separate Act, for Securitisation and
Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Rengrajan Commottee.
T.R. Andhyarjuna Committee.
Narasimham Committee.
Nayak Committee.
Rengrajan Commottee.
T.R. Andhyarjuna Committee.
Narasimham Committee.
Nayak Committee.
The
Correct Answer is : T.R.
Andhyarjuna Committee.
81. SARFAESI Act,
2002 was made effective on: Marks: 2+ 0.5-
21.06.2002.
01.06.2002.
01.04.2002.
15.03.2002.
21.06.2002.
01.06.2002.
01.04.2002.
15.03.2002.
The
Correct Answer is : 21.06.2002.
82. What are the
main features of SARFAESI Act, 2002? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
To put a legal system for securitization.
Empowering banks and financial institutions to take possession of the mortagaged securities.
To sell the securities without intervention of court.
All the above.
To put a legal system for securitization.
Empowering banks and financial institutions to take possession of the mortagaged securities.
To sell the securities without intervention of court.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
83. What are the
main issues with which SARFAESI Act, 2002 deals with?
Marks: 2+
Securitisation
of Assets.
Setting up of an Assets Reconstruction Company.
Enforcement of securities.
All the above.
Setting up of an Assets Reconstruction Company.
Enforcement of securities.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
84. The essential
features of securitization are: Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Acquisition of Financial Assets by a Securitisation or Reconstruction Company.
The Assets may be NPA or standard.
On sale the Assets goes out of the Books of the originator.
All the above.
Acquisition of Financial Assets by a Securitisation or Reconstruction Company.
The Assets may be NPA or standard.
On sale the Assets goes out of the Books of the originator.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
85. What are the
main functions of Assets Reconstruction Company?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Setting up of a company.
Acquiring Assets for Reconstruction.
Acquire Assets for Asset Reconstruction.
All the above.
Setting up of a company.
Acquiring Assets for Reconstruction.
Acquire Assets for Asset Reconstruction.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
86. Which of the
following is not a function of Asset Reconstruction Company?
To
acquire pending recovery cases from DRT.
Act as an Agent for Recover.
Act as Manager.
Act as Receiver of Court/Tribunal.
Act as an Agent for Recover.
Act as Manager.
Act as Receiver of Court/Tribunal.
The
Correct Answer is : To acquire
pending recovery cases from DRT.
87. The important
features of Enforcement of Securities are:
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
take possession of the Secured Assets.
Take over management of Secured Assets.
To acquire pending recovery cases from DRT.
Act as an Agent for Recover.
take possession of the Secured Assets.
Take over management of Secured Assets.
To acquire pending recovery cases from DRT.
Act as an Agent for Recover.
The
Correct Answer is : Act as an
Agent for Recover.
88. The important
features of Enforcement of Securities are: Marks: 2+ 0.5-
take possession of the Secured Assets.
Take over management of Secured Assets.
Recover dues from the debtors of the borrower
All the above.
take possession of the Secured Assets.
Take over management of Secured Assets.
Recover dues from the debtors of the borrower
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
89. In which of
the following Acts. The provisions of Mortgage of an Asset are dealt with?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Transfer of Property Act.
Sale of Goods Act.
Negotiable Instrument Act.
Indian Company Law.
Transfer of Property Act.
Sale of Goods Act.
Negotiable Instrument Act.
Indian Company Law.
The
Correct Answer is : Transfer of
Property Act.
90. The bank can
enforce the security after giving notice and if Borrower does not repay within:
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
30 days.
60 days.
75 days.
90 days.
30 days.
60 days.
75 days.
90 days.
The
Correct Answer is : 60 days.
91. The power of
enforcement of security are available to: Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Banking Companies
Public Financial Institutions
Non-Banking Financial companies
(a) and (b).
Banking Companies
Public Financial Institutions
Non-Banking Financial companies
(a) and (b).
The
Correct Answer is : (a) and
(b).
92. What are the
Rights available to a secured creditor?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
To sell the Assets.
File application with DRT for recovery of full or remaining dues.
To proceed against the guarantor.
All the above.
To sell the Assets.
File application with DRT for recovery of full or remaining dues.
To proceed against the guarantor.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
93. Which of the
following statements, is correct regarding securitization of Asset?
Bank can take possession of Asset and sale itself or it can hand over to Reconstruction company.
Securitised company get all the Rights of secured creditor.
All the above.
Bank can take possession of Asset and sale itself or it can hand over to Reconstruction company.
Securitised company get all the Rights of secured creditor.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is :
94. Which of the
following is correct?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
The borrower can file an appeal with the DRT only after the secured creditor takes possession of Asset.
Borrower can not file an appeal in the Civil Court.
Writ petition can be filed in the High Court at any time.
All the above.
The borrower can file an appeal with the DRT only after the secured creditor takes possession of Asset.
Borrower can not file an appeal in the Civil Court.
Writ petition can be filed in the High Court at any time.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
95. Which of the
following statements, is not correct? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
the secured creditor has all the Judicial powers.
The Borrower can get the possession of Asset back if he succeeds in DRT.
The protection of SICA will not be available once the secured creditor takes steps
The Borrower can get compensation from the secured creditor if he succeeds in appeal in DRT.
the secured creditor has all the Judicial powers.
The Borrower can get the possession of Asset back if he succeeds in DRT.
The protection of SICA will not be available once the secured creditor takes steps
The Borrower can get compensation from the secured creditor if he succeeds in appeal in DRT.
The
Correct Answer is : the secured
creditor has all the Judicial powers.
96. Which of the
following provisions are correct regarding securitisatin?
Marks: 2+
performing
Assets can be securitized.
Non-performing assets can also be securitized.
A securitization company can also act as Asset Re-construction Company and vice-versa.
All the above.
Non-performing assets can also be securitized.
A securitization company can also act as Asset Re-construction Company and vice-versa.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
97. Which of the
following are the requirements of a securitized company?
It should be an independent company.
It should be registered with RBI.
It will be a public financial institution.
All the above.
It should be an independent company.
It should be registered with RBI.
It will be a public financial institution.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
98. Which of the
following statements, is correct? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Securitisation company can acquire only financial assets.
The difference between securitization and factoring is that in factoring only existing Receivables can be acquired while in securitistion even future Receivables can be acquired.
The purpose of Securitisation is to avoid mismatch between Assets and Liabilities.
All the above.
Securitisation company can acquire only financial assets.
The difference between securitization and factoring is that in factoring only existing Receivables can be acquired while in securitistion even future Receivables can be acquired.
The purpose of Securitisation is to avoid mismatch between Assets and Liabilities.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
99. The
securitization Company can acquire financial assets from Banks in the following
manner:
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
by issuing Debenture or Bonds.
By entering into an arrangement with the Bank/Financial Insitution.
a) or (b)
(a) and (b).
by issuing Debenture or Bonds.
By entering into an arrangement with the Bank/Financial Insitution.
a) or (b)
(a) and (b).
The
Correct Answer is : a) or (b)
100. What is the
role of qualified Institution Buyers in the securitization process?
The
qualified investors would invest in the Financial Asset Scheme.
The securitized company issues Security Receipts to qualified investors.
The security receipt represents undivided interest in the Financial Asset.
The securitized company will realize Financial Assets and redeem the investment.
The securitized company issues Security Receipts to qualified investors.
The security receipt represents undivided interest in the Financial Asset.
The securitized company will realize Financial Assets and redeem the investment.
The
Correct Answer is : The
qualified investors would invest in the Financial Asset Scheme.
101. Which of the
following statements, is correct? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
the qualified investors would be paid out of the realization of Financial Assets.
Any dispute between Bank securitization company and qualified institutional investors would be settled through arbitration.
The lending company sells its loans to the investors through special purpose vehicle.
All the above.
the qualified investors would be paid out of the realization of Financial Assets.
Any dispute between Bank securitization company and qualified institutional investors would be settled through arbitration.
The lending company sells its loans to the investors through special purpose vehicle.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
102. What are the
features of asset Reconstruction? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
The Right or interest of any Bank is acquired for the purpose of realization of such assets.
Non-performing assets alone can be acquired for asset re-construction.
The assets can be acquired by the Asset Reconstruction Company by issuing Debentures and Bonds or entering into an arrangement with the Bank.
All the above.
The Right or interest of any Bank is acquired for the purpose of realization of such assets.
Non-performing assets alone can be acquired for asset re-construction.
The assets can be acquired by the Asset Reconstruction Company by issuing Debentures and Bonds or entering into an arrangement with the Bank.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
103. Under what
circumstances security can not be enforced?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
If it is an Agriculture Land.
When the amount due is less than Rs. One lac.
When the Borrower has repaid more than 80% of principle and interest.
All the above.
If it is an Agriculture Land.
When the amount due is less than Rs. One lac.
When the Borrower has repaid more than 80% of principle and interest.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
104. Security
interest means:
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Right, title and interest of any kind upon property.
Created in favour of any secured creditor.
This includes mortgage, hypothecation and assignment.
All the above.
Right, title and interest of any kind upon property.
Created in favour of any secured creditor.
This includes mortgage, hypothecation and assignment.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
105. When an
action for enforcement of security can be initiated?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
When a Borrower is under the liability of secured creditor.
Borrower makes a default in payment of principal and interest.
The loan account is classified as Non-performing Asset (NPA).
All the above.
When a Borrower is under the liability of secured creditor.
Borrower makes a default in payment of principal and interest.
The loan account is classified as Non-performing Asset (NPA).
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
106. What is a
Non-performing Asset:
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Where payment of interest or principal or both is in arrears for more than 180 dyas.
Where loan account is in default for 90 days and above.
Where loan account is classified as sub-standard doubtful or loss Asset by the Bank as per the directions of RBI.
Non of the above.
Where payment of interest or principal or both is in arrears for more than 180 dyas.
Where loan account is in default for 90 days and above.
Where loan account is classified as sub-standard doubtful or loss Asset by the Bank as per the directions of RBI.
Non of the above.
The
Correct Answer is : Where loan
account is classified as sub-standard doubtful or loss Asset by the Bank as per
the directions of RBI.
107. Which of the
following are the requirements for finding a notice?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
It must be in writing giving a borrower time of 60 days to discharge the liability.
It must specify that secured creditor has right to exercise any action over the assets.
It must give details of amount payable by the borrower and the secured assets intended to the enforced.
All the above.
It must be in writing giving a borrower time of 60 days to discharge the liability.
It must specify that secured creditor has right to exercise any action over the assets.
It must give details of amount payable by the borrower and the secured assets intended to the enforced.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
108. which of the
following a notice must specify in case of foreclosed loans?
It
should cover entire loan liability including instalments not due.
It should cover entire loan liability including instalments not due.
It must mention future interest payable till the date of repayment.
All the aboe.
It should cover entire loan liability including instalments not due.
It must mention future interest payable till the date of repayment.
All the aboe.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
aboe.
109. Which of the
following are the provisions for joint secured creditors?
Marks: 2+
Individual
secured creditors can not take any action unless such right is agreed upon.
Decision will be taken jointly by secured creditors having 75 per cent of liability.
The decision take as above.(b) will be binding in all the remaining secured creditors.
All the above.
Decision will be taken jointly by secured creditors having 75 per cent of liability.
The decision take as above.(b) will be binding in all the remaining secured creditors.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
110. How the
amount received from sale of secured assets would be applied?
Payment
of cash, changes incurred in taking over the assets and maintaining it.
Discharge of due of secured creditor.
The remaining amount will be paid to the borrower entitled.
In the above manner (a), (b) and (c).
Discharge of due of secured creditor.
The remaining amount will be paid to the borrower entitled.
In the above manner (a), (b) and (c).
The
Correct Answer is : In the
above manner (a), (b) and (c).
111. Which of the
following statements, is correct? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Secured creditor may file a case with DRT for the remaining unrealise amount.
No suit can be filed against the secured creditor if it has acted in good faith.
Action against the secured creditor can be taken only of malafied is alleged and established.
All the above.
Secured creditor may file a case with DRT for the remaining unrealise amount.
No suit can be filed against the secured creditor if it has acted in good faith.
Action against the secured creditor can be taken only of malafied is alleged and established.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
112. Whose
assistance can be taken for taking over assets if the borrower resists giving
possession of the asset? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Chief Metropolitam Magistrate.
District Magistrate.
(a) or (b)
Superintendent of police.
Chief Metropolitam Magistrate.
District Magistrate.
(a) or (b)
Superintendent of police.
The
Correct Answer is : (a) or (b)
113. Which of the
following statements, is correct? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
the secured creditor can take possession of Asset 60 days after giving notice.
The Asset can be sold or transferred.
It is mendatory for District Magistrate to take possession of Asset once written request is received from secured creditor.
All the above.
the secured creditor can take possession of Asset 60 days after giving notice.
The Asset can be sold or transferred.
It is mendatory for District Magistrate to take possession of Asset once written request is received from secured creditor.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
114. What is the
procedure of acquiring a secured movable Asset?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
The authorized officer of secured creditor shall prepare a panchnama.
The panchnama should be witnessed by two persons.
If the property is subject to natural decay, the authorized person may sell it at once.
All the above.
The authorized officer of secured creditor shall prepare a panchnama.
The panchnama should be witnessed by two persons.
If the property is subject to natural decay, the authorized person may sell it at once.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
115. What is
process of valuation of movable secured Assets?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
The authorized officer shall obtain estimated value of asset.
Officer can fixed reserve price of Asset to be sold.
The borrower need not be involved in the process of valuation.
ll the above.
The authorized officer shall obtain estimated value of asset.
Officer can fixed reserve price of Asset to be sold.
The borrower need not be involved in the process of valuation.
ll the above.
The
Correct Answer is : ll the
above.
116. The movable
Asset can be sold:
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
obtaining quotations from interested buyers.
Inviting tenders
Holding public action
Any of the above.
obtaining quotations from interested buyers.
Inviting tenders
Holding public action
Any of the above.
The
Correct Answer is : Any of the
above.
117. How many days
notice is required to be given to borrower for sale of movable secured Asset?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
30 days
15 days.
7 days.
3 day.
30 days
15 days.
7 days.
3 day.
The
Correct Answer is : 30 days
118. Which of the
following are the steps for taking over immovable secured Asset?
The
authorized person shall take possession by delivering possession notice to the
Borrower.
A copy of the possession notice shall be affixed on the outdoor of the property.
The possession receipt is also required to be published in two leading newspapers locally.
All the above.
A copy of the possession notice shall be affixed on the outdoor of the property.
The possession receipt is also required to be published in two leading newspapers locally.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
119. Which of the
following statements, is correct regarding valuation of immovable secured
asset?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Authorised officer will obtain estimated value from the approved valuer.
The borrower need not involved in the valuation process.
Valuaiton by approved vluer and fixing of reserve price is mendatory incase of immovable Assets.
All the above.
Authorised officer will obtain estimated value from the approved valuer.
The borrower need not involved in the valuation process.
Valuaiton by approved vluer and fixing of reserve price is mendatory incase of immovable Assets.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
120. Which of the
following is the important provision in respect of immovable property which is
subject to encumbrances? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
The secured creditor shall vest in the transfree all the right as it the transfer had been made by the borrower.
All encumberances know to secured creditor must be disclosed in the advertisement.
The Authorised officer may allow the purchaser to deposit with him the money required to discharge the encumbrances.
All the above.
The secured creditor shall vest in the transfree all the right as it the transfer had been made by the borrower.
All encumberances know to secured creditor must be disclosed in the advertisement.
The Authorised officer may allow the purchaser to deposit with him the money required to discharge the encumbrances.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
121. What are the
provisions for appointment of manager for secured Assets:
the
Board of Directors of secured creditor may appoint a manager in consultation
with the borrower to manage secure assets.
The manager will be deemed to be an agent of borrower.
The borrower solely would be responsible for the acts of manager.
All the above.
The manager will be deemed to be an agent of borrower.
The borrower solely would be responsible for the acts of manager.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
122. Which of the
following arte the powers of manager? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
To recover any money form any person who has acquired secured asset, from the borrower.
Such amount should become due or may become due in future.
The manager will give valid discharge to person making payment as if the payment has been made to the borrower.
All the above.
To recover any money form any person who has acquired secured asset, from the borrower.
Such amount should become due or may become due in future.
The manager will give valid discharge to person making payment as if the payment has been made to the borrower.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
123. What are the
provisions of depositing 75% amount by the borrower while submitting appeal?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
No appeal will be entertained unless 75% of the amount is not deposited.
DRT an waive or reduce the amount required to be deposited.
The amount will include instalments which were not due.
All the above.
No appeal will be entertained unless 75% of the amount is not deposited.
DRT an waive or reduce the amount required to be deposited.
The amount will include instalments which were not due.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
124. what are the
important features of securitization? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
It is process through which illiquid Assets are transferred into more liquid from of Assets.
The lending institution's Assets are removed from it Balance Sheet.
These Assets are funded by investors through a negotiable financial instrument .
All the above.
It is process through which illiquid Assets are transferred into more liquid from of Assets.
The lending institution's Assets are removed from it Balance Sheet.
These Assets are funded by investors through a negotiable financial instrument .
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
125. What is the
role of special purchase vehicle (SPV) in the process of securitization?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
It is an intermediary between seller of financial Assets.
SPV receive money from investors and pays to the transferer.
The investors are paid out of the Assets realized over a period of time.
All the above.
It is an intermediary between seller of financial Assets.
SPV receive money from investors and pays to the transferer.
The investors are paid out of the Assets realized over a period of time.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
126. The essential
features of pass through certificate are:
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
A direct, participation in the case flow is sold.
Receipt of Asset cash flow is deposited in a designated account.
The funds are passed on to certificate holders.
All the above.
A direct, participation in the case flow is sold.
Receipt of Asset cash flow is deposited in a designated account.
The funds are passed on to certificate holders.
All the above.
The
Correct Answer is : All the
above.
127. The essential
features of pay through certificates are:
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
It involves specific sale of asset cash flow to sPV.
The SPV issues pay through certificates to the investors.
The cash is collected by the SPV from the borrower and then distributed
the cash is colleted by the SPV from the borrow and then distributed to certificate holders.
It involves specific sale of asset cash flow to sPV.
The SPV issues pay through certificates to the investors.
The cash is collected by the SPV from the borrower and then distributed
the cash is colleted by the SPV from the borrow and then distributed to certificate holders.
The
Correct Answer is : the cash is
colleted by the SPV from the borrow and then distributed to certificate
holders.
128. what are the
pre-requistes for formatting a securitized company?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
it must obtain registration certificate from the RBI.
minimum owned funds of Rs . 2 crore.
the maximum amount of owned funds should not excel 15% of total financial assets acquired or to be acquieed.
all the above
it must obtain registration certificate from the RBI.
minimum owned funds of Rs . 2 crore.
the maximum amount of owned funds should not excel 15% of total financial assets acquired or to be acquieed.
all the above
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above
129. what are the
steps an asspt reconstruction company can take?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
proper management of he business of the borrow.
sale or lease of a part of whole of business of borrower.
Re-scheduling the payment of dept.
all the above
proper management of he business of the borrow.
sale or lease of a part of whole of business of borrower.
Re-scheduling the payment of dept.
all the above
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above
130. which of the
following measures the asset reconstruction company can not undertake?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
it can acquire standand assets of banks.
it can enforce security interest.
it can settle the dues payable by the borrower.
it can take possession of secured assets.
it can acquire standand assets of banks.
it can enforce security interest.
it can settle the dues payable by the borrower.
it can take possession of secured assets.
The
Correct Answer is : it can
acquire standand assets of banks.
131. what are the
impart benefits of SARFAESI Act, 2002 to the banks?
Marks: 2+
the
banks can realise assets by selling or leasing without intervention or court.
manage asset- liability mis- matches.
improve liquidity and recovery position.
all the above .
manage asset- liability mis- matches.
improve liquidity and recovery position.
all the above .
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above .
132. in case of
grievance, what are the various forums available to the borrower to appeal?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
DRTandDRAT.
high court.
supreme court.
all the above
DRTandDRAT.
high court.
supreme court.
all the above
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above
133. . which of
the following are the redressal agencies under the consumer protection act?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
district forum.
state commission.
national commission.
all these .
district forum.
state commission.
national commission.
all these .
The
Correct Answer is : all these .
134. . which of
the following are the
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
it has set up in each district.
it is headed by the district judge.
it deals with all the complaints where value of goods or services and the
all the above.
it has set up in each district.
it is headed by the district judge.
it deals with all the complaints where value of goods or services and the
all the above.
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above.
135. . the
district forum deals with the complaints where value of goods does not exceed;
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Rs. 70 lac
Rs. 25 lac
Rs. 50lac
Rs. No such limit.
Rs. 70 lac
Rs. 25 lac
Rs. 50lac
Rs. No such limit.
The
Correct Answer is : Rs. 70 lac
136. the feature
deals with the complaints where value of goods and service exceeds;
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
it is set up state governments for the respective state.
it is headed by the judge of a high court.
it hears appeals against the orders of distict forums within the state.
all the above .
it is set up state governments for the respective state.
it is headed by the judge of a high court.
it hears appeals against the orders of distict forums within the state.
all the above .
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above .
137. the state
commission deals with the complaints where value of goods and services exceeds;
Marks: 1+ 0.25-
Rs. 20 lac but does not exceed Rs. 50 lac .
Rs. 20 lac but does not exceed Rs. 75 lac.
Rs. 20 lac but does not exceed Rs. 1 crore
no such limit is fixed.
Rs. 20 lac but does not exceed Rs. 50 lac .
Rs. 20 lac but does not exceed Rs. 75 lac.
Rs. 20 lac but does not exceed Rs. 1 crore
no such limit is fixed.
The
Correct Answer is : Rs. 20 lac
but does not exceed Rs. 1 crore
138. the national
commission is headed by; Marks: 2+ 0.5-
commission nominated by center govt.
judge of the supreme court.
official of home ministry.
an individual of high integrity.
commission nominated by center govt.
judge of the supreme court.
official of home ministry.
an individual of high integrity.
The
Correct Answer is : an
individual of high integrity.
139. . how many
members are there in the national commission?integrity.
4
2
6
10
2
6
10
The
Correct Answer is : 4
140. the
complaints alt by nation commission are where value of goods and services
exceeds;
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Rs.50 lac
Rs. 1crore.
Rs. 1.25 crore.
Rs. 2 crore .
Rs.50 lac
Rs. 1crore.
Rs. 1.25 crore.
Rs. 2 crore .
The
Correct Answer is : Rs. 1crore.
141. in which of
the forums appeals can be filed with against the orders of state commission?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
national commission.
high court.
central government .
any of these.
national commission.
high court.
central government .
any of these.
The
Correct Answer is : national
commission.
142. a complaints can be lodged in relation to any goods or services
in the following circumstances; Marks: 2+ 0.5-
loss or damage suffered on account of unfair trade practice.
the goods suffer from one a more defects.
the services suffer from deficiency in any respect.
all the above.
loss or damage suffered on account of unfair trade practice.
the goods suffer from one a more defects.
the services suffer from deficiency in any respect.
all the above.
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above.
143. a complaints
under the consumer protection act, can be lodged by;
Marks: 2+ consumer
himself or one or more consumers having common interest.
a recognized consumer association
the central of state government
any of the above.
a recognized consumer association
the central of state government
any of the above.
The
Correct Answer is : any of the
above.
144. . what is the
limitation period in which a complain can be filed with any of the forums?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
2 years from the date of cause of action.
1 years from the date of cause of action.
6 months from the date of cause of action.
3 months from the date of cause of action.
2 years from the date of cause of action.
1 years from the date of cause of action.
6 months from the date of cause of action.
3 months from the date of cause of action.
The
Correct Answer is : 2 years
from the date of cause of action.
145. in how many
days the opposite party can give the version of the case?
7
days.
15 days.
30 days.
no such time limit.
15 days.
30 days.
no such time limit.
The
Correct Answer is : 30 days.
146. in how many
days laboratory should submit its report regarding the defect of the goods?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
55days
60days
75days
90 days
55days
60days
75days
90 days
The
Correct Answer is : 55days
147. what are the
steps involved on settlement of a complaint in case of services?
both
the parties are required to produce evidence in support to their claims.
the forum examines th evidence and hear the parties.
the forum passes appropriate orders.
all the above
the forum examines th evidence and hear the parties.
the forum passes appropriate orders.
all the above
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above
148. . what kind
of instructions the forum can issue to the opposite party?
to
remove the defect of the goods.
to replace the goods with new goods which shall be free from defect.
to return to the complaint the price of goods or charges for se ices
any one of the above
to replace the goods with new goods which shall be free from defect.
to return to the complaint the price of goods or charges for se ices
any one of the above
The
Correct Answer is : any one of
the above
149. which of the
following instruction the forum is not authorized to issue in case of defects
or deficiacy in service? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
to return the degected goods along with addition new goods free of cost.
to pay compensation for any loss or injury suffered by the consumer.
to discontinue the unfair trade practice.
to provide for adequate costs to the parties.
to return the degected goods along with addition new goods free of cost.
to pay compensation for any loss or injury suffered by the consumer.
to discontinue the unfair trade practice.
to provide for adequate costs to the parties.
The
Correct Answer is : to return
the degected goods along with addition new goods free of cost.
150. an appeal
against the decision of national commission may be preferred with;
central
government.
supreme court.
high court.
no provision for submitting an appeal
supreme court.
high court.
no provision for submitting an appeal
The
Correct Answer is : supreme
court.
151. . what is the
maximum period for filling an appeal against the orders of the forum
/commission ?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
3 days
30 days
60 days
90 days
3 days
30 days
60 days
90 days
The
Correct Answer is : 30 days
152. . if the
complaints lodged by the consumer is frivolous, the forum may instruct the
construct th ecomplainst to pay penality to opposite pasrty to the extent of;
Rs.
10.001.
Rs. 5,00.
Rs 10,00.
Rs 15,000.
Rs. 5,00.
Rs 10,00.
Rs 15,000.
The
Correct Answer is : Rs 10,00.
153. . in case of
non compliance of the orders of the forum by the trader or a person against
whom complaint was made the forum c/commission may fix the following
penalities?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
imprisonment of one month and upto 3 years.
a fine of not less than Rs. 2,000 but to more than Rs. 10,000
(a) or (b)
(a) or (b)
imprisonment of one month and upto 3 years.
a fine of not less than Rs. 2,000 but to more than Rs. 10,000
(a) or (b)
(a) or (b)
The
Correct Answer is : (a) or (b)
154. who will be
the chairman of central consumer oprotection council? Marks: 2+
minister
incharge of consumer affars.
judge of supreme court.
any member nominated by government.
none of the above.
judge of supreme court.
any member nominated by government.
none of the above.
The
Correct Answer is : minister
incharge of consumer affars.
155. when was the
national commission was set up set central government ?
1986
1987
1988
1991
1987
1988
1991
The
Correct Answer is : 1988
156. the district
forum shall consist of; Marks: 2+ 0.5-
president
an eminent person
a lady social worker
all these
president
an eminent person
a lady social worker
all these
The
Correct Answer is : all these
157. who would nbe
the president of deistrict forum? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
district judge
district magistrate
additional commissioner.
an eminenst social worker
district judge
district magistrate
additional commissioner.
an eminenst social worker
The
Correct Answer is : district
judge
158. . when was the
consumer protection ant, 19896 modified?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
1991
1993
1995
1997
1991
1993
1995
1997
The
Correct Answer is : 1993
159. what are the
special features of consumer protection act, from cousumers point of view?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
a simple process of complaint redressal.
inexpendive redressal of complaint.
speedy redressal of consumer grievances.
all the above.
a simple process of complaint redressal.
inexpendive redressal of complaint.
speedy redressal of consumer grievances.
all the above.
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above.
160. . which of
the following sectors the consumer protection ant,applies?
Marks: 2+
private
sector.
public sector
government agencies.
all the above
public sector
government agencies.
all the above
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above
161. . what kind
of banking complains can be lodged with the consumer banking forum?. what kind
of banking complains can be lodged with the consumer banking forum?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
charging edcess interest on laons
payment of less interest on deposite
forgery in the account
all the above
charging edcess interest on laons
payment of less interest on deposite
forgery in the account
all the above
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above
162. which of the
following complaints can not be redressed by the forum?
non
-enhancement in the credit limit
non- payment of cheque without valid reason
negligence in bank transactions.
not providing the required service
non- payment of cheque without valid reason
negligence in bank transactions.
not providing the required service
The
Correct Answer is : non -enhancement
in the credit limit
163. . which of
the following activities is not commercial?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
goods bought by a consumer to be used exclusively by him for the purpose of earning hes livelihood by means of selt- employment
a retailer.
small scale industry
a car of a transport company being operated by a driver.
goods bought by a consumer to be used exclusively by him for the purpose of earning hes livelihood by means of selt- employment
a retailer.
small scale industry
a car of a transport company being operated by a driver.
The
Correct Answer is : goods
bought by a consumer to be used exclusively by him for the purpose of earning
hes livelihood by means of selt- employment
164. whin was the
first asset reconstruction company was set up?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
august, 2003.
dec,2003
march,2004.
june, 2003.
august, 2003.
dec,2003
march,2004.
june, 2003.
The
Correct Answer is : august,
2003.
165. which of the
following banks were major promoters of first asset reconstruction company?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
state bank of India.
icicibank.
IDBI
all these
state bank of India.
icicibank.
IDBI
all these
The
Correct Answer is : all these
166. what was the
capital contribution or major partipating banks in promoting the first asset
re- construction company? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
50.%
24.5%
33.3%
20%
50.%
24.5%
33.3%
20%
The
Correct Answer is : 24.5%
167. what are the
main objectives of consimer protection act, 1986?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
to provide better protection of the interest of consumers.
settlement of consumer disputes.
to deal with other connected matters.
all the above
to provide better protection of the interest of consumers.
settlement of consumer disputes.
to deal with other connected matters.
all the above
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above
168. which of the
following statements, is correct regarding consumer protection act?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
the act extends to whole of India except the state of jammu&Kashmir.
the act applies all goods and services except those notified by the central government .
the act is called consimer protection act, 1986.
all the above
the act extends to whole of India except the state of jammu&Kashmir.
the act applies all goods and services except those notified by the central government .
the act is called consimer protection act, 1986.
all the above
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above
169. consumer
means;
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
any person who buys any goods.
any person who hires or avails of any services.
any person who makes payment in full or in instalements or under hire purchase systems.
all the above
any person who buys any goods.
any person who hires or avails of any services.
any person who makes payment in full or in instalements or under hire purchase systems.
all the above
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above
170. who is not a
consumer?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
any person who uses goods or benefited from services without making any payment.
any person who obtain goods for resale or an commercial purpose.
persons allotted plots or houses by housing development boards.
a person hires any services for consideration.
any person who uses goods or benefited from services without making any payment.
any person who obtain goods for resale or an commercial purpose.
persons allotted plots or houses by housing development boards.
a person hires any services for consideration.
The
Correct Answer is : any person
who obtain goods for resale or an commercial purpose.
171. which of the
following is not a consumer? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
patient receiving medical treatment in govt. hospital.
patients getting treatment in private nursing home.
persons selling/buying shares from a share broker
none of the above.
patient receiving medical treatment in govt. hospital.
patients getting treatment in private nursing home.
persons selling/buying shares from a share broker
none of the above.
The
Correct Answer is : none of the
above.
172. the goods in
the consumer protection act, includes; Marks: 2+ 0.5-
every kind of movable property except money.
actionable claims, stocks and shares.
growing) crops and things attached to or forming a part of the land .
all the above.
every kind of movable property except money.
actionable claims, stocks and shares.
growing) crops and things attached to or forming a part of the land .
all the above.
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above.
173. the services
under the consumer protection includes;
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
banking, financing and insurance.
transports and processing.
supply of electrician and other energy.
all the above.
banking, financing and insurance.
transports and processing.
supply of electrician and other energy.
all the above.
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above.
174. .which of the
following, is not a service under the provisions of the act?
free
services and personal services rendered under a contranct.
boarding, lodging or both .
entertainment and amusement.
purveying of news and other information.
boarding, lodging or both .
entertainment and amusement.
purveying of news and other information.
The
Correct Answer is : free
services and personal services rendered under a contranct.
175. what are the
essential features of services ? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
it must be of a commercial nature.
it must be rendered on payment.
services received by a patient from a doctor or hospital may be ree of charge.
all the above.
it must be of a commercial nature.
it must be rendered on payment.
services received by a patient from a doctor or hospital may be ree of charge.
all the above.
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above.
176. which of the
following are not consumer under the act?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
beneficiary of services though not the hirer himself.
nominee uder a bank deposit account.
actual user of a subscribers telephone.
all the above.
beneficiary of services though not the hirer himself.
nominee uder a bank deposit account.
actual user of a subscribers telephone.
all the above.
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above.
177. which o the
following rights of a consumer are protected under the act?
the
right to be protected against the making of goods which are hazardous to life
and property.
the right against unfair trade plactices.
the right to be assured to a cvariety of goods and services at competitive prices.
all the above.
the right against unfair trade plactices.
the right to be assured to a cvariety of goods and services at competitive prices.
all the above.
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above.
178. the unfair
trade practice includes; Marks: 2+ 0.5-
quality and quantity.
potency and purity.
standard and price of goods and services.
all the above.
quality and quantity.
potency and purity.
standard and price of goods and services.
all the above.
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above.
179. which of the
following is not the right under the consumer protection act?
the right to be heard and to be assured that consumers interest will be received due consideration.
right to seek fedressal.
right to consumer education.
right to free delivery at a particular spot.
the right to be heard and to be assured that consumers interest will be received due consideration.
right to seek fedressal.
right to consumer education.
right to free delivery at a particular spot.
The
Correct Answer is : right to
free delivery at a particular spot.
180. the right of
redressal is sought for against ; Marks: 2+ 0.5-
unfair trade practices.
restrictive trade practices.
unscrupulous exploitation.
all these
unfair trade practices.
restrictive trade practices.
unscrupulous exploitation.
all these
The
Correct Answer is : all these
181. the concept
of banking ombudsma is; Marks: 2+ 0.5-
originated on India.
international concept.
a scheme of world bak
a part of basic committee recommendation.
originated on India.
international concept.
a scheme of world bak
a part of basic committee recommendation.
The
Correct Answer is : a part of
basic committee recommendation.
182. . who
implemented the banking ombudsman scheme?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Indian bank association.
reserve bank of India.
national institute of bank management
national consumer commission
Indian bank association.
reserve bank of India.
national institute of bank management
national consumer commission
The
Correct Answer is : national
consumer commission
183. which of the
following the complaint need not contain?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
the name of the bank official
the nature extent of loss caused to the complaint.
relief sought from banking ombudsman .
statement about the compliance of the condition.
the name of the bank official
the nature extent of loss caused to the complaint.
relief sought from banking ombudsman .
statement about the compliance of the condition.
The
Correct Answer is : the name of
the bank official
184. what is the
necessary condition to be complied with before lodging a complaint to banking
ombusman
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
the complainant before making a complaint to ombudsman to ombudsman must have made a representation to the concerned bank.
bank might have reject ed the complaint or not replied the complaint
the reply might have not to the satisfaction of complainant.
(a) or (b) or (c)
the complainant before making a complaint to ombudsman to ombudsman must have made a representation to the concerned bank.
bank might have reject ed the complaint or not replied the complaint
the reply might have not to the satisfaction of complainant.
(a) or (b) or (c)
The
Correct Answer is : (a) or (b)
or (c)
185. the
acceptance of recommendations of the banking ombudsman should be conveyed by
the bank within?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
7 days
15 days
15days
30days
7 days
15 days
15days
30days
The
Correct Answer is : 30days
186. how many
offices the banking ombudsman have at present ?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
5
10
21
29
5
10
21
29
The
Correct Answer is : 10
187. what are the
formalities the banking ombudsman will comply before passing an award
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
if the complaint is not settled within 2months from the date of receipt of the complaint, the baking ombudsman will inform parties about his intention to pass an award.
both the parties may submit further representation or evidences in support their case within 15 days.
the banking ombudsman will pass an award.
all the above
if the complaint is not settled within 2months from the date of receipt of the complaint, the baking ombudsman will inform parties about his intention to pass an award.
both the parties may submit further representation or evidences in support their case within 15 days.
the banking ombudsman will pass an award.
all the above
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above
188. before
passing an award the banking ombudsman will be guided by;
Marks: 2+
evidences
produced by the parties.
banking law and practice.
instructions and guidelines issued by RBI
all the above
banking law and practice.
instructions and guidelines issued by RBI
all the above
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above
189. . an award by
banking ombudsman will contain; Marks: 2+ 0.5-
specific performance of opigartions.
loss / cost to be borne by the bank.
reasons for making the award.
all the above .
specific performance of opigartions.
loss / cost to be borne by the bank.
reasons for making the award.
all the above .
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above .
190. an award will
be executed the bank in the following manner;
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
complainant must submit acceptance letter within one month he will accept the award in full and final settlement
the bank shall comply the award within 5 days of receipt of acceptance from the complaint
the bank shall intimate the banking ombudsman about compliances of the award within 15 days.
all the above.
complainant must submit acceptance letter within one month he will accept the award in full and final settlement
the bank shall comply the award within 5 days of receipt of acceptance from the complaint
the bank shall intimate the banking ombudsman about compliances of the award within 15 days.
all the above.
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above.
191. the banking
ombudsman may reject the complaint on the following grounds
complaint
is without sufficient cause.
complaint is not pursued with reasonable diligence.
there is no loss or damage or inconvenience suffered by the complainant.
any one or all of the above
complaint is not pursued with reasonable diligence.
there is no loss or damage or inconvenience suffered by the complainant.
any one or all of the above
The
Correct Answer is : any one or
all of the above
192. which of the
following the banking ombudsman does not cover?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
financial institutions.
non- banking financial companies
non- scheduled banks.
all the above.
financial institutions.
non- banking financial companies
non- scheduled banks.
all the above.
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above.
193. . the banking
ombudsman receives maximum number of complaints in respect of;
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
foreign bank
public sector bank
regional rural bank
co- operative bank
foreign bank
public sector bank
regional rural bank
co- operative bank
The
Correct Answer is : public
sector bank
194. most of the
complaints are settled through; Marks: 2+ 0.5-
mutual agreement
award .
bank itself
before proceeding to agreenebt stage
mutual agreement
award .
bank itself
before proceeding to agreenebt stage
The
Correct Answer is : mutual
agreement
195. which of the
following are the norms of awarding compensation by the banking ombudsman ? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
banking ombudsman does not have unlimited powers to allow compensation.
the maximum limit of compensation is Rs. 10 lac
no compensation will be awarded in excess of that which is necessary.
all the above
banking ombudsman does not have unlimited powers to allow compensation.
the maximum limit of compensation is Rs. 10 lac
no compensation will be awarded in excess of that which is necessary.
all the above
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above
196. . in case of
non- compliance of the award by the bank the baking ombudsman will report to;
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
reserve bank of India.
supreme court
finance ministry
consumer protection forum
reserve bank of India.
supreme court
finance ministry
consumer protection forum
The
Correct Answer is : reserve
bank of India.
197. what is the
maximum limit of compensation the baking ombudsman may a award?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
Rs. 1 lac
Rs. 5 lac
Rs. 10 lac
Rs. No such limit
Rs. 1 lac
Rs. 5 lac
Rs. 10 lac
Rs. No such limit
The
Correct Answer is : Rs. 10 lac
198. what is the
maximum time for settlement of a claim before passing an award by the banking
ombudsman
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
within 15 days from the date of receipt of complaint.
within 30 days from the date of receipt of complaint.
within 2 months from the date of receipt complaint ,
within 3 months from he date of receipt of complaint
within 15 days from the date of receipt of complaint.
within 30 days from the date of receipt of complaint.
within 2 months from the date of receipt complaint ,
within 3 months from he date of receipt of complaint
The
Correct Answer is : within 2
months from the date of receipt complaint ,
199. . what is the
time limit to accept the recommendations of baking ombudsman by a bank?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
one week
2 weeks
3 weeks
4 weeks
one week
2 weeks
3 weeks
4 weeks
The
Correct Answer is : 2 weeks
200. . the banking
ombudsman scheme was implemented in india on;
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
14.6 .1995
1.1.7.1995
2.10.1995
15.12.1995
14.6 .1995
1.1.7.1995
2.10.1995
15.12.1995
The
Correct Answer is : 14.6 .1995
201. the banking
ombudsman scheme 1995 was amended in Marks: 2+ 0.5-
2000
2001
2002
2004
2000
2001
2002
2004
The
Correct Answer is : 2002
202. . the banking
ombudsman scheme covers the following banks; Marks: 2+ 0.5-
scheuled commercial banks.
regional rural banks.
co- operative banks.
all these
scheuled commercial banks.
regional rural banks.
co- operative banks.
all these
The
Correct Answer is : all these
203. . which of
the following statements is correct regarding banking ombudsman scheme?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
it is an opportunity to public to redress their grievances of banking services
it is an additional grievances settlement mechanism
it is not substistution of consume protection ant.
all the above.
it is an opportunity to public to redress their grievances of banking services
it is an additional grievances settlement mechanism
it is not substistution of consume protection ant.
all the above.
The
Correct Answer is : all the above.
204. . the
opjectives of the banking ombudsman scheme are;
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
to promote settlement through conciliatio
prompt settlement of customer grievances .
inexpensive settlement of grievances.
all the above.
to promote settlement through conciliatio
prompt settlement of customer grievances .
inexpensive settlement of grievances.
all the above.
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above.
205. who can make
the complaint to ombudsman? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
the customer himself
the authorized representative of customer.
(a) or (b) above
all the above
the customer himself
the authorized representative of customer.
(a) or (b) above
all the above
The
Correct Answer is : (a) or (b)
above
206. . under what
circumstances a complaint can be lodged with the banking ombudsman
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
if the bank has not settled the issue within a perio of two months.
the bank has rejected the complaint of the customer
the reply given by the bank to the cucstomer was not satisfactory.
all the above
if the bank has not settled the issue within a perio of two months.
the bank has rejected the complaint of the customer
the reply given by the bank to the cucstomer was not satisfactory.
all the above
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above
207. what is the
true limit for a bank to dispose customers complainst?
Marks: 2+
1
month
2month
3month
6month
2month
3month
6month
The
Correct Answer is : 2month
208. what kind of
complaint can be lodged with the banking ombudsman?
Marks: 2+
delay
in collection of cheques
deficienc in cash transaction.
non- issue of demand drafts
all the anove
deficienc in cash transaction.
non- issue of demand drafts
all the anove
The
Correct Answer is : all the
anove
209. the ombudsman
sigifies;
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
an institution established to content and prevent abuses of power by bublic official.
redress individual grievances
acts as an external agency to probe in to administration faults.
all the above
an institution established to content and prevent abuses of power by bublic official.
redress individual grievances
acts as an external agency to probe in to administration faults.
all the above
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above
210. . the role of
banking ombudsman is;
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
resolution of complaints against banks regarding deficiency in services
it is an external agency includes mediation persuasion and adjudication
it is an external agency having independent identity
all the above
resolution of complaints against banks regarding deficiency in services
it is an external agency includes mediation persuasion and adjudication
it is an external agency having independent identity
all the above
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above
211. banking
ombudsman is;`
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
legat machinery established by subordinate legislation to provide an additional but optainal legal remedy
a judicial machinery
NGO
an administrative machinery
legat machinery established by subordinate legislation to provide an additional but optainal legal remedy
a judicial machinery
NGO
an administrative machinery
The
Correct Answer is : legat
machinery established by subordinate legislation to provide an additional but
optainal legal remedy
212. . the feaures
of the award awarded by banking ombudsman are;
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
it is binding on the banks
it is not binding on the complaints unless be accepts it
the complaint is free to seed alternative remedies availale under general law
all the above
it is binding on the banks
it is not binding on the complaints unless be accepts it
the complaint is free to seed alternative remedies availale under general law
all the above
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above
213. what is the
tenureo banking ombudsman? Marks: 2+ 0.5-
1years
3years
5 years
no such time limet
1years
3years
5 years
no such time limet
The
Correct Answer is : 5 years
214. what is the
provisions of remuneration of the baking ombudsman ?
Marks: 2+
60
years
62 years
65 years
68 years
62 years
65 years
68 years
The
Correct Answer is : 65 years
215. . what are
the provisions of remuneration of the banking ombudsman
he
is eligible for remuneration and other perquisites
this will be determined by the RBI
this has to be borne by banks proportionatel
all the above
this will be determined by the RBI
this has to be borne by banks proportionatel
all the above
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above
216. . the
necessary requirement for submitting need not contain?
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
it must be in writing and duly signed by the complainant and or authorized person.
it should contain the name address of the complainant.
it must contain the bank and branch name against which complaint is being made.
all the above
it must be in writing and duly signed by the complainant and or authorized person.
it should contain the name address of the complainant.
it must contain the bank and branch name against which complaint is being made.
all the above
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above
217. the bank is
required to comply with the execution of the award of banking ombudsman
within;the bank is required to comply with the execution of the award of
banking ombudsman within; Marks: 2+ 0.5-
7 days
15days
30days
60days
7 days
15days
30days
60days
The
Correct Answer is : 15days
218. the bank can
seek review of award before; Marks: 2+ 0.5-
deputy governor of RBI
chief justice of supreme court.
consumer protection act, 1986
none of the above
deputy governor of RBI
chief justice of supreme court.
consumer protection act, 1986
none of the above
The
Correct Answer is : deputy
governor of RBI
219. the banking
ombudsman may ask the concerned bank to submit;
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
information on the complaint.
evidences and documents in support of the reply to the complaint
other related document
all the above
information on the complaint.
evidences and documents in support of the reply to the complaint
other related document
all the above
The
Correct Answer is : all the
above
220. under which
provisions, the RBI has introducted the banking regulation act, 1949
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
section 33 of banking omudsman scheme
RBI act, 134
consumer protection act, 1986
none of the above
section 33 of banking omudsman scheme
RBI act, 134
consumer protection act, 1986
none of the above
The
Correct Answer is : none of the
above
221. an award of
banking ombudsman is;
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
a judicial decision.
an arbitrirary order
an order on the bank .
an appeal to the bank
a judicial decision.
an arbitrirary order
an order on the bank .
an appeal to the bank
The
Correct Answer is : a judicial
decision.
222. under the
banking ombudsman scheme a complaint can be lodged with the ombudsman
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
within in the specified jurisdiction.
with the head office of the bank
with the consumer of the bank
any of the above
within in the specified jurisdiction.
with the head office of the bank
with the consumer of the bank
any of the above
The
Correct Answer is : within in
the specified jurisdiction.
223. the
secretariate staff in the baking ombudsman office will be
Marks: 2+ 0.5-
drawn from banks.
drawn from reserve bank
directl appointed
(a) and (b)
drawn from banks.
drawn from reserve bank
directl appointed
(a) and (b)
The
Correct Answer is : (a) and (b)
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